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Pastimes : Ask God -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?

To: Emile Vidrine who wrote (19740)	7/28/1998 12:13:00 PM
From: IN_GOD_I_TRUST	Read Replies (1) \| Respond to of 39621

I agree with you wholeheartedly about the history and the meaning you described of the house of Judah and the house of Israel in the verses! But why then in 10: "For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:" does he not use both house's? Why does he use both house's in one verse and not the other? Is he foretelling us that when the New Covenant is formed the two houses would be united? Just interested in your opinion of why the switch??? God Bless, Steve