To: Janice Shell who wrote (8829 ) 8/15/1998 12:35:00 AM From: Jetter Respond to of 11684
Janice, I know I've done some good rambling and bullsh!ting today, but in all honesty can you answer this question I posted earlier? Forthright, I thought you would be here soon... Good to see you in high spirits...Maybe you care to take a crack at the question below.So what you want us to believe is this... There were some 400K shares traded today... A market maker was only making a market, so roughly half (200K) were sells and 200K were buys. Either a MM or some investor wanted to buy some MTEI stock today at .37 But, come to think of it, after the first buy of 500 shares at .375, all the rest were either buys or sell at the bid only, If I remember correctly, not one trade the rest of the day went through at the ask. So tell me, how does that work? If a MM was merely making a market, they would have been buying at the bid and selling at the ask? So what happened? Were there actually any buys today, or was it all sells? If it was all sells, why would a market maker be only interested in buying shares and not sellling them back? If he wanted to also sell, wouldn't he set the price a little closer to the bid? The larger the gap between the bid/ask, the less turnover they would generate. If I had just fell off the turnip truck, I would think that the market maker wanted to buy all the shares they could at the bid, and not sell any by keeping the ask extreamly high... So,what about the trading log today? I am use to dealing with cold hard facts and rules (physics, aerodynamics, etc). At least you cannot argue with the trading log, fairly hard evidence. Please, I'm am truely interested in learning how you dismiss this... Thanks in advance... ~Scott