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To: IN_GOD_I_TRUST who wrote (1223)9/28/1998 1:48:00 PM
From: Raymond James Norris  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 1542
 
I don't see how your example is applicable. Leaving out a word versus changing the whole meaning, is that an applicable analogy?


So leaving out a word is "ok" but using different words to explain the same thing is not??

I would be more concerned with something being left out than a transltor simply trying to say the same thing in different terms.

In the verse we are discussing, one says the prophet speaks falsely, the other the prophet has Satanic desires.

No!! One does not say the Prophet speaks falsely! It says that as he recites the revelation, Satan atttempts to throw falsehood, but that all falsehood thrown in by Satan is cancelled by God. The second verse says the same thing but refers to the Prophet's Message as a "framed desire," or an orderd desire: being the message given to him. Again, Satan tries to avert that message, but again, God cancels it.

What it is clear no matter how you want to try and twist one verse, is that God cancels whatever falsehood or vanity Satan throws towards the Prophets.

Peace be unto you,
Norris