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To: Sam who wrote (7289)	10/24/1998 4:23:00 PM
From: Frodo Baxter	Respond to of 9980

>As it stands, considering the changes that I know about in households, it seems to me to be going out of its way to not state directly that the relative wealth of average individuals in the US has decreased over the past 30 years. It's going out of its way to not state directly that the relative wealth of average individuals has decreased because it hasn't, got it??? The basic point of the link I provided is this. Say median household income is $30,000 in 1969 and 1996. While per capita income has increased from $10,000 to $15,000. Why the discrepancy? The answer is only not obvious to really perverse pessimists. The definition of "household" has changed, from an an average of 3 people to 2. >Or perhaps I ought to go look at your link, and see what other qualifications are included. Perhaps you should, as you're less likely to insert foot in mouth.