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To: Secret_Agent_Man who wrote (1519)1/2/1999 10:43:00 PM
From: IN_GOD_I_TRUST  Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 1542
 
nm,

But no, it is not a misintrepretation on my part. I'll prove it! Let's examine the verse again:

Al-Hajj 22:52
"Never did We send a Messenger or a Prophet before you, but; when he did recite the revelation or narrated or spoke, Shaitân (Satan) threw (some falsehood) in it. But Allâh abolishes that which Shaitân (Satan) throws in. Then Allâh establishes His Revelations. And Allâh is All-Knower, All-Wise:"

The words "narrated" and "spoke" are in the past tense, not the present or future. Past tense is that something happened. The prophet/messanger clearly spoke or narrated already before Allah abolishes it.

Further proof would come in the tense of the word abolishes. If Allah would abolish the words before they were spoke by the prophet, then the word abolishes would be abolished, because he already abolished the words before they were spoke. "Abolishes" should be in the past tense, which it is not. "Abolishes" implies it is being done now, after the fact, or in the future.

So the tenses of the words "spoke", "narrated" and "abolishes" prove your intrepretation incorrect.

If your intrepretation was correct, the verse would say,

[denotes your so called interpretation, not actual Qu'ranic text]
"Never did We send a Messenger or a Prophet before you, but; when he [was going to] recite the revelation or [narrate] or [speak], Shaitân (Satan) [throws] (some falsehood) in it. But Allâh [abolished] that which Shaitân (Satan) [threw] in."

You want to try again??????

God Bless,
Steve