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To: Sowbug who wrote (1024)1/3/1999 5:18:00 PM
From: HG  Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 41369
 
I bought DELL just prior to their last split. There is no difference. You can continue looking at it with the old pricing structure. I bought 250 DELL @100 (old money) but unknown to myself, they announced the split minutes later My account still showed 250 @100. The actual split came much later, but except for the volatility which surrounds the split, I was transparent to the process.

I'm surpised this question is asked at all. Logically, as you say, this doesn't make any sense. In fact I'm told calls split the same way - haven't held a call long enough to experience it myself.

HG



To: Sowbug who wrote (1024)1/3/1999 6:27:00 PM
From: Dr. D  Respond to of 41369
 
Sowbug

I could be wrong, I was wrong once before. <Grin>

My point was in terms of a shareholder that physically holds a stock certificate. In this case, the stockholder would receive the new shares via mail from his/her broker, for the additional shares, between the date of record and the actual split date. Since this is seldom the case, it rarely effects shareholders in general terms.

This is how I understand it. If I am wrong I look forward to being corrected for the record, for my own benefit.

Best wishes

3d



To: Sowbug who wrote (1024)1/3/1999 6:50:00 PM
From: Chuzzlewit  Respond to of 41369
 
You are exactly right!

TTFN,
CTC



To: Sowbug who wrote (1024)1/3/1999 7:52:00 PM
From: 1SFG  Respond to of 41369
 
If you are holding the 100 shares on the day of the split they in fact are valued at the post split price. It is the responsibility of the holder of these shares to contact the Transfer Agent (I think) and receive the other 100 shares owed to you. It is merely a paper drill and your broker handles it for you if he is in possession of the shares.