To: Lizzie Tudor who wrote (36694 ) 3/3/1999 7:43:00 PM From: Johannes Pilch Respond to of 67261
>How come this argument has been made time and time again in support of assault weapons etc. and when the definition of "high crime" comes up, oh wait - we need to determine what it meant to the framers? What did the right to bear arms mean to the framers? Not assault weapons!< Michelle. Your argument is seriously flawed. I unfortunately cannot devote time to the thing, but I will tell you that merely because the NRA doesn't, as you erroneously claim, refer to the original intent of the framers is no reason to claim they err. They are not logically forced toward original intent merely because some Republicans referred to it. You would have a better case were the NRA to have argued for original intent concerning the term "High Crimes and Misdemeanors" but failed to do the same concerning the Constitutional right to "bear arms". Secondly, you err in your implication here that the NRA has argued to refer to the original intent of the term "High Crimes and Misdemeanors" regarding the Clinton impeachment. Perhaps the NRA did such a thing, but I have not seen it. Where did you see it? I have seen that it was at one time a major Democrat position that reference to the original framers' intent concerning the phrase "High Crimes and Misdemeanors" was a requirement before proceeding with the impeachment. While the NRA was apparently silent on the impeachment issue, some Republicans persistently claimed it clear Clinton's misdeeds rose to the level of impeachable offenses, this, without many appeals (but they did make some appeals) to the framers. And they were right, because just as many of those in your camp now admit, Clinton has seriously abused the public's trust such that now nothing he says is much believed. According to Federalist #65 he is a political criminal and appropriately was impeached. >This is a very relevant argument, we have one group of people taking two opposing stances on how to interpret historical documents. Its one or the other.< Thirdly, you erroneously claim we have one group taking two positions-- referring to original intent on impeachment, and not referring to original intent on bearing arms. Who is this group? I am not yet convinced it was the NRA because I have myself read the NRA referring to the framers' original intent for the second Amendment. They have informed their constituents that the point of the second Amendment was to allow citizens to be prepared to fight against a government they deem hostile to their interests. You want not to have it both ways? Good. Me either. Let us refer to original intent regarding both impeachment and the bearing of arms. Then philosophically we can lynch Clinton and have the right to own tanks and nuclear weapons. (grin) btw. In answer to your question "What did the right to bear arms mean to the framers? Not assault weapons!", considering the original intent of "bearing arms", the framers definitely meant assault weapons.