Silicon Investor (SI) -- The First Internet Community

STOCKTALK

We've detected that you're using an ad content blocking browser plug-in or feature. Ads provide a critical source of revenue to the continued operation of Silicon Investor. We ask that you disable ad blocking while on Silicon Investor in the best interests of our community. If you are not using an ad blocker but are still receiving this message, make sure your browser's tracking protection is set to the 'standard' level.

Pastimes : Kosovo -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?

To: RealMuLan who wrote (8225)	5/13/1999 10:10:00 AM
From: Neocon	Read Replies (1) \| Respond to of 17770

I don't know why the editors would care to lie...

To: RealMuLan who wrote (8225)	5/13/1999 10:31:00 AM
From: Hawkmoon	Read Replies (1) \| Respond to of 17770

Alright Yiwu, who did Tibet belong to before the Chinese conquered it?? They don't smell like Chinese, they don't look like Chinese. They are not Chinese. And if I follow your train of logic, then most of the Mediterrean region and Europe (up to Scotland) belongs to Italy. After all, the Roman empire DID conquer and rule most of that region for CENTURIES. And then we can make the analogy towards Israel and Palestine. Until the Roman's conquered Jerusalem, the Israelites ruled Palestine (which I understand is a different pronunciation of Philistine). The bottom line is that you can go back as far in history that you want and create your own borders along the boundaries of historic conquest. You can claim that Mongolia really has a right to China because they ruled it for a period of time. But was it the Chinese that conquered Tibet or was it the Mongols?? Where do we draw the line in making ancient claims of geographical control??