Silicon Investor (SI) -- The First Internet Community

STOCKTALK

We've detected that you're using an ad content blocking browser plug-in or feature. Ads provide a critical source of revenue to the continued operation of Silicon Investor. We ask that you disable ad blocking while on Silicon Investor in the best interests of our community. If you are not using an ad blocker but are still receiving this message, make sure your browser's tracking protection is set to the 'standard' level.

Pastimes : Another Good Reason Not To Be Married -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?

To: The Philosopher who wrote (5115)	5/13/1999 12:15:00 PM
From: Edwarda	Read Replies (1) \| Respond to of 6545

And I was about to post the following (having found it, didn't want to waste it): The next question we must ask ourselves is what degree of grace did Mary exist in at the time of the conception of Christ. At this point is where the real issue of the Immaculate Conception takes place. Catholics and Protestants both agree on the sinless human nature of Christ and that Christ , being logically unable to sin against Himself, was born without the stain of Original Sin because of his very nature. But where the line is drawn is that Protestants make the assertion that Mary would in fact be under the mantle of Original Sin because of her very nature as a human being. Mary, therefore, could have sinned, most likely did sin in her lifetime, and was selected not because of her adherence to the will of God, but instead by the grace of God, she was chosen. But there are several fallacies to this assertion. If we are to assume that Mary was if fact tainted with Original Sin from the beginning then the very sanctuary that Christ would be brought into the world would be tainted with sin and Christ's human nature would, in fact, be the product of sin. This poses and obvious and grave theological error that cannot be safely assumed. Another fallacy of that assertion is that, if sin did in fact exist within Mary then she could have, at any point in time, deviated from the will of God against her nature. If that were the case, Mary would have ceased to experience the graces of God that were so clearly emphasized by Gabriel. While one could safely assume that, after experiencing the conception of Christ that from that point forward Mary would have been sinless by the very grace of God's presence in her life, it does not erase the fact that Mary possessed the qualities of grace before the conception of Christ. However, one could make the assertion that Mary was tainted with Original Sin and only Original Sin, and therefore Mary would retain both the graces of God and the taint of Original Sin. But even that is theologically unsound, for the fact that Satan would forever be able to taunt Christ with the fact that he brought the world to salvation through the conduit of sin. It is not through sin that we come to know Christ, but rather by the grace of God and the reassignment of our purpose to the will of God through Christ. It is therefore safe to assume that the sanctuary that Christ chose to come to the world to would also be free of the weight of sin, and hence the concept of the Immaculate Conception.