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To: The Philosopher who wrote (53921)9/1/1999 7:50:00 PM
From: Achilles  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 108807
 
But these property rights are not 'Judaeo' either. They existed in the Ancient Near East before the Hebrew Bible was written. And they did not come to Western Europe either with the Jewish Diaspora or with the expansion of Christianity. Both the Greeks and the Romans had developed legal systems that recognized property ownership. Indeed, Roman law became the basis for most of the legal systems of continental Europe. Christianity (with or without its Jewish roots) had less influence on our attitudes to property ownership than Rome did.