To: GUSTAVE JAEGER who wrote (9085 ) 12/21/2000 10:15:15 AM From: Hawkmoon Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 10042 Gustave... you misunderstood my point. We all know that Nazi Germany tried to exterminate the Jews. My question was whether anyone in other Pre-WWII Europe set up their own concentration camps independently initiating their own genocide programs . And the answer is clearly NO. Yes, there was rampant anti-semitism throughout Europe before the war, but it essentially manifested itself through encouraging emigration to other countries, or to Palestine. ONLY NAZI GERMANY, by virtue of its authoritarian leadership, orchestrated the most extreme manifestation of anti-semitism, namely wholesale genocide. And yes, many people, in order to "get along" were more than willing to give up their jewish neighbors, or do nothing to prevent their being carted off (what COULD they actually do to prevent it in that kind of environment?). But some DID help Jews escape, and others hid Jews in their homes for years. And some, such as in Poland, hid in the cellars and sewers for years. I watched one program where they discussed a young girl who spent more than a year in a sewer system, rarely seeing the light of day, living in darkness, assisted only by a sewer maintenance worker who her father had to bribe in order to obtain food and candles. My friend, I can't, and hope never to be able to, fully imagine living in such conditions. And I hope that I never have to live with the kind of fear and terror that Nazi Germany inflicted on the whole of Europe. Bottom line, if anti-semitism in the rest of Europe had been equal to that of Nazi Germany, Hitler wouldn't have been the only leader to create a "final solution".