To: E who wrote (9204 ) 3/20/2001 2:41:39 PM From: Neocon Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 82486 All right, I will make a final attempt on this one. There have been two strands to the argument: one, my assertion that Nazi anti- Semitism was much more virulent than traditional Christian anti- Judaism; and two, my assertion that Christian anti- Judaism, though given to outbreaks of violence or more aggressive persecution, was not ordinarily driving Christians to such activities. For example, the point about the Spanish Inquisition was that it was almost universally reviled, and resisted in territories like Genoa, under Spanish control; that Jews per se were exiled but not subject to the Inquisition; that the targets of the Inquisition were conversos, and comparatively few were killed. (Incidentally, Torquemada was a converso). This bears upon the difference between an egregious event in the annals of Christian persecution, and the Nazi program of genocide. No genocide was attempted, and the point was not extermination. Also, the Spanish Inquisition was unusual in its ferocity, and was viewed unfavorably elsewhere. The point about the original participation of Jews in the persecution of Christians is not to promulgate a "tit for tat" thesis. It is not even to deny that the logic of the situation would have necessitated the claim that the Church was the New Israel, and other aspect of contempt for Judaism. It is only to note that some of the occasional virulence of language, such as that found in Revelations, may have been exacerbated by the hostilities "on the ground". Anyway, I mention these two things by way of a final attempt at clarification. If they do not make an impression, well, I am sure I can find things to argue about elsewhere.......