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Politics : Foreign Affairs Discussion Group -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?

To: Hawkmoon who wrote (23950)	4/8/2002 5:21:15 PM
From: Nadine Carroll	Read Replies (1) \| Respond to of 281500

Thought you knew these quotes, Hawk. Arab nationalism of the 40s and 50s was pan-Arab, there was no "Palestinian" movement back then. Of course, the Mufti would have been glad to grab whatever land he could get, but nobody trusted him or would arm his fighters. So if Israel had lost in 1948, Palestine would have been partitioned between Egypt and Transjordan, maybe with Syria taking a little piece of the North. Transjordan, which had the only decent army -- British trained and British officered -- would have taken the lion's share.

To: Hawkmoon who wrote (23950)	4/9/2002 8:23:49 AM
From: Ilaine	Read Replies (2) \| Respond to of 281500

I am not sure what you guys are getting at. Are you arguing that Palestine never existed prior to the British Mandate? Because you can look at old maps that show Palestine, and read old books that talk about Palestine, while it was still part of the Ottoman Empire. Here's an 1849 map that calls the entire area Syria: lib.utexas.edu Here's an 1849 historical map of the area they call Palestina: lib.utexas.edu Here's an 1884 map that calls the entire area Sham: lib.utexas.edu A differentiation between Syria and Palestine was clearly made in 1912, because a lot of maps on this site are from a Baedecker entitled "Palestine and Syria, Handbook for Travelers." Fifth Edition. lib.utexas.edu Here's a 1923 map that shows Palestine: lib.utexas.edu I find it rather creepy that some Jews argue that the entire area was a desert until they moved there, and that the only reason the Arabs want to live there is because the Jews made it a better place to live. Historical revisionism to serve political goals creeps me out, especially when one asks, "to what end?" Demonizing the other is the only possible reason I can see.