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To: Victor Lazlo who wrote (147199)	9/10/2002 1:04:12 PM
From: Oeconomicus	Read Replies (1) \| Respond to of 164684

Saw that in the WSJ this AM. The interesting thing is that the previous foreclosures high was 1.14% in Q1 1999 vs. 1.23% now. It was also over 1% for much of the '92-'94 post-recession period. Is that a significant difference and what, if anything, what does it signal now vs. then? Could the rise be, in part, due to the practices of certain lenders? forbes.com Or, perhaps, to financing programs homebuilders have used to lure marginal credits into the market for new homes? (see the WSJ's Personal Journal today)