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To: John Madarasz who wrote (58251)	11/1/2002 6:51:16 AM
From: gsp6181	Respond to of 209892

John - excellent analysis, thanks. - George

To: John Madarasz who wrote (58251)	11/1/2002 8:38:18 AM
From: JRI	Read Replies (1) \| Respond to of 209892

Good points all...ah, I see there is someone else who considers "news" g What if Nov. 8th is a lower high? g <Warning, conspiracy theorists> Going down here, for a couple days, pre-election....does that mean that the forces that have been enginering "up" into the election are failing....if they could bring it this far, couldn't they keep it up here? (for a few more days). Does that make sense? Maybe there was a EOY/EOM pump, and that is now over, and we are going down as a result? Maybe we are all just trying to find reasons for technical action we don't understand? Thanks for your (as always) enlightening thoughts

To: John Madarasz who wrote (58251)	11/1/2002 8:51:59 AM
From: rgjack	Read Replies (2) \| Respond to of 209892

An excerpt from Michael Hart, Another bagel buster.... optioninvestor.com worth considering: >>The Dow finished the month about 30 points from posting the best October on record, ever. Coming in second best was no small feat with a +10.6% gain. This was the best monthly gain for the Dow since Jan-1987. Unfortunately, every time the Dow has posted a double digit gain since 1926 the following month showed a high single digit drop. Every time! That does not mean November is a guaranteed drop but I would not bet against it based on the fundamentals. <<

To: John Madarasz who wrote (58251)	11/1/2002 9:32:34 AM
From: The Freep	Read Replies (2) \| Respond to of 209892

John -- nice post. I do have a question, however. << 4) There is the distinct possibilty that the 8.6 year cycle turn for Nov 8th (+/- 12 days) will be a HIGH time...not a low...inversion>> Perhaps you're more familiar with the PEI work than I am, but my understanding of it would really not allow for a "cycle inversion" in the same way as a Bradley. My read of it is that it's a fixed cycle that repeats in set intervals of time. My read is that the end of 8.6 years HAS to mark a low of the whole cycle. . . with the next cycle kicking off after that. (Personally, I'd call Oct 10 close enough to an 8.6 year cycle, even though I believe there's only a 12 day variance allowed according to the work). Is your reading of the PEI work different than mine? Can one of the dates somehow invert, not invalidating all the other time turns in the 8.6 year cycle? thanks, the freep