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Politics : Foreign Affairs Discussion Group -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?

To: GST who wrote (108864)7/30/2003 12:03:07 PM
From: Neocon  Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 281500
 
Is there no consideration of legitimacy, when the ruler in effect makes war upon his own people? Suppose that the Nazis had not had expansionist designs in the '30s and '40s, but had merely decided to exterminate German Jews, homosexuals, gypsies, the chronically infirm, and political opponents. Would it have been immoral to have overthrown the regime? Would a regime like that have moral claims to sovereignty, or merely legalistic claims?



To: GST who wrote (108864)7/30/2003 7:33:47 PM
From: Brumar89  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 281500
 
So the Vietnamese invasion to overthrow Pol Pot and the Tanzanian invasion to overthrow Idi Amin was immoral in your view. Ditto the waging of war against the sovereign nation of Yugoslavia over its ethnic cleansing of its ethnic Albanian citizens.

I look forward to your answer to Neo's question re. the morality of attacking Hitler if he hadn't invaded other countries.


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