Silicon Investor (SI) -- The First Internet Community

STOCKTALK

We've detected that you're using an ad content blocking browser plug-in or feature. Ads provide a critical source of revenue to the continued operation of Silicon Investor. We ask that you disable ad blocking while on Silicon Investor in the best interests of our community. If you are not using an ad blocker but are still receiving this message, make sure your browser's tracking protection is set to the 'standard' level.

Pastimes : Ask God -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?

To: alan w who wrote (35982)	12/7/2003 11:54:35 PM
From: Berry Picker	Read Replies (2) \| Respond to of 39621

RE>>It would seem that in your opinion, there were no christians on earth after ad 70 until God convicted someone?? later. If all the dead in Christ and all those who were living were caught up to Him, there would be none left anywhere on earth. I always thought that Revelation was written after ad 90, but if you are correct it would have to have been written before ad 70. Else John the Revelator would not have been around to write it<< Exactly - all true elect believers were taken in 70 A.D. Revelation was not the last book written but was written prior to the "end" in 70 A.D. It was written when there were but 7 churches in Asia during the reign of Nero - the temple and Israel were still in existence - the book speaks of God judging Israel: Revelation 11:8 And their dead bodies shall lie in the street of the great city, which spiritually is called Sodom and Egypt, where also our Lord was crucified. God is calling Israel "Sodom and Egypt" spiritually - it was still standing but SOON to be judged with bowls of wrath. We know for a certainty that "the great city" in that verse refers to Jerusalem and none other because Christ was crucified there. Then you take the term "the great city" knowing it to be Jerusalem from the obvious clues John has given and transfer that term to these verses: Revelation 14:8 And there followed another angel, saying, Babylon is fallen, is fallen, that great city, because she made all nations drink of the wine of the wrath of her fornication. In that verse Jerusalem is referred to as "Babylon" so she has suffered now the names "Babylon, Sodom and Egypt" spiritually. Revelation 16:19 And the great city was divided into three parts, and the cities of the nations fell: and great Babylon came in remembrance before God, to give unto her the cup of the wine of the fierceness of his wrath. Revelation 17:18 And the woman which thou sawest is that great city, which reigneth over the kings of the earth. Revelation 18:21 And a mighty angel took up a stone like a great millstone, and cast it into the sea, saying, Thus with violence shall that great city Babylon be thrown down, and shall be found no more at all. Alan - once you use that one verse to discover that Revelation is not speaking against Rome or any modern day pope but is in fact about God avenging the death of His son and all the innocent blood. – see Matthew 23 etc. Then does it become plain what is actually being predicted. When one admits that Revelation is self explanatory concerning the "at handedness" and "immanency" of fulfillment is it plain that the destruction in 70 A.D. is in fact the fulfillment of it and not some catastrophic future event in what men now call Israel to be seen in our lifetime or any future lifetime. It is also plain what the new "Great City" was in scripture: Revelation 21:10 And he carried me away in the spirit to a great and high mountain, and shewed me that great city, the holy Jerusalem, descending out of heaven from God, This is the New Covenant Church - the New Jerusalem - not made with hands. The point at which we differ is that you cannot believe that death has been defeated - because you see it as physical. The Jews looked for a 'physical' kingdom and missed it... most men are still looking with carnal eyes for a carnal fulfillment. Alan - pay close attention to this verse of scripture written in David's time; Psalm 56:13 For thou hast delivered my soul from death: wilt not thou deliver my feet from falling, that I may walk before God in the light of the living? Psalms 116:8 For thou hast delivered my soul from death, mine eyes from tears, and my feet from falling. No one believes that this was an end to all tears on the part of David. If it is about Christ - Christ also wept: John 11:35 Jesus wept. Shortest verse in the bible :-) If then it is not referring to an absolute cessation of tears. What then does it mean? If you compare the verses it means a restoring to fellowship with God from the tears and anguish of sin and separation. Notice " my feet from falling" appears in both verses. "delivered my soul from death" appears in both verses. This I believe makes it undoubted that both verses refer to the exact same topic - in one it speaks of restoration to fellowship with God in the light - while the other speaks of being delivered from tears. Adam did not "die" physically on the "day that he did eat" this is not about physical death - it is about spiritual death. Adam was created 'dust' and would return regardless of sin. He was kept from the tree of eternal life - after falling spiritually. Adam did not inherit physical death from the curse as many suppose he just failed to inherit eternal life from the tree of life. Everything that Adam inherited as the curse from sin he inherited "that day" - not years later. Genesis 2:17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die. If God meant physical death - then God lied and satan told the truth because Adam did not die physically in the day he ate thereof. Christ did conquer the last enemy in 70 A.D. - that was death spiritual. It was then and only then that God could allow men eternal life with Him in the true paradise in heaven. 1 Corinthians 15:55 O death, where is thy sting? O grave, where is thy victory? When men were raptured into heaven the graves were emptied. That victory is not future - it is accomplished. Romans 8:37 Nay, in all these things we are more than conquerors through him that loved us. People who are waiting for carnal men to stop dying will wait forever. People who think a 1000 year millennium on earth will be set up can not explain anything to me. If physical death is ended at Christ's return then does no one die for 1000 years thereafter? Are there children born during the millennium - are they saved or do they join the damned or do they yet "choose" :-) What becomes of the scriptures during this millennium as it says that men are saved by faith without seeing if every eye sees Christ during the 1000 years - who would not "choose" Him if he reigns on earth with a physical body and a literal "rod of iron"? So then is there a dispensation when men can be saved without faith? Or is no one saved for the entire 1000 years and no one else born? What purpose does this millennium serve - just utter torment? You do well to quote Heb 9:26 when it plainly says that the age that was being inaugurated was the end of the ages. There were many ages prior to the Christian age. Adam's age - Noah's age - Moses etc. The Christian age was the age to end ages - it is the final and eternal age the earth will see. Heb 9:26 For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world (age - BV) hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself. Christ appear "in the end of the world" - past tense not future. "hath he appeared" not "will he appear" Brian