To: LKO who wrote (47518 ) 12/13/2004 8:58:40 PM From: LPS5 Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 50167 Some may call that an incorrect interpretation based on reading the same text. Some certainly might, but they'd be as wrong as those who claim that the Civil War had anything to do with 'egalitarianism.'King Lincoln may just be sucking up to Mr. Greely and lying like any successful politician to keep allies. Certainly. However, other facts strongly suggest that egalitarianism wasn't the prime mover, here:Congress announced to the world on July 22, 1861, that the purpose of the war was not "interfering with the rights or established institutions of those states" (i.e., slavery), but to preserve the Union "with the rights of the several states unimpaired." At the time of Fort Sumter (April 12, 1861) only the seven states of the deep South had seceded. There were more slaves in the Union than out of it, and Lincoln had no plans to free any of them. The North invaded to regain lost federal tax revenue by keeping the Union intact by force of arms. In his First Inaugural Lincoln promised to invade any state that failed to collect "the duties and imposts," and he kept his promise. On April 19, 1861, the reason Lincoln gave for his naval blockade of the Southern ports was that "the collection of the revenue cannot be effectually executed" in the states that had seceded.lewrockwell.com ;The same King Lincoln also said in the Gettysberg Address... (citing) [A]ll men are created equal... That's a curious statement. Does quoting the Declaration of Independence imply sincerity whilst simultaneously suspending habeas corpus , shutting down opposition newspapers, launching a draft which the wealthy could buy their way out of and - lest we forget - making clear that slavery as an also-ran, secondary issue where restoring the Union was concerned? More importantly: does the clause "all men are created equal " suggest egalitarianism? e