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Strategies & Market Trends : The Epic American Credit and Bond Bubble Laboratory -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: ahhaha who wrote (78193)1/26/2007 12:53:56 PM
From: NOW  Respond to of 110194
 
we did so miss you over here hahahha: where you been?



To: ahhaha who wrote (78193)1/26/2007 2:15:57 PM
From: andiron  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 110194
 
question is: will rampant asset inflation ultimately cause CPI type inflation..Or asset will simple deflate so quickly that there would be no need for it.



To: ahhaha who wrote (78193)1/26/2007 7:07:36 PM
From: bart13  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 110194
 

In the modern era inflation is defined as acceleration of the general price level(roroc of GPL).


Lots of dictionaries and economists think otherwise, or have additional definitions that are more precise.


In fact, the chart shows the 2.4% rising structural rate of general price level(the straight line of zero slope) and the current era's definition of inflation(acceleration or deceleration, rising and falling of graphed function).


Which means pretty much nothing. I can take all sorts of bad data and make bad charts too.


Your chart doesn't show that. Your chart purportedly shows rate of change of secLend vs Tbond yield. On the face of it please tell me how you think your chart shows any correlation.


Considering that you don't see it visually, there's not much I can say.

I have no idea where you get the idea there's some relationship I'm positing between SecLend and temp and perm, etc.

The rest of your statement has little or nothing to do with SecLend or my point that CPI is hugely understated.