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To: Nadine Carroll who wrote (250357)5/17/2008 3:46:09 PM
From: Sr K  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 793896
 
>>For the life of me, I cannot figure out how the logic of the California Supreme Court which necessitates instituting gay marriage by judicial fiat against the expressed will of the people of California, does not also apply to polygamous marriage. If gays as a protected class must have the power to redefine marriage to their liking, whatever prevents Muslims from making the same demand on the grounds of religious freedom?<<

That's addressed and covered within the 121-page decision in footnote 52 on pages 79-80 (the footnote extends to 2 pages), which ends:

"Thus, our conclusion that it is improper to interpret the state constitutional right to marry as inapplicable to gay individuals or couples does not affect the constitutional validity of the existing legal prohibitions against polygamy and the marriage of close relatives."

It is also a subject addressed in the CONCURRING AND DISSENTING OPINION BY BAXTER, J. (pages 17-18). Baxter's opening paragraph:

"The majority opinion reflects considerable research, thought, and effort on a significant and sensitive case, and I actually agree with several of the majority’s conclusions. However, I cannot join the majority’s holding that the California Constitution gives same-sex couples a right to marry. In reaching this decision, I believe, the majority violates the separation of powers, and thereby commits profound error."

-

The full footnote on pages 79-80:

52 "We emphasize that our conclusion that the constitutional right to marry properly must be interpreted to apply to gay individuals and gay couples does not mean that this constitutional right similarly must be understood to extend to
polygamous or incestuous relationships. Past judicial decisions explain why our nation’s culture has considered the latter types of relationships inimical to the mutually supportive and healthy family relationships promoted by the
constitutional right to marry. (See, e.g., Reynolds v. United States (1878) 98 U.S. 145, 165-166; Davis v. Beason (1890) 133 U.S. 333, 341; People v. Scott (2007)157 Cal.App.4th 189, 192-194; State v. Freeman (Ohio Ct.App. 2003) 801 N.E.2d 906, 909; Smith v. State (Tenn.Crim.App. 1999) 6 S.W.3d 512, 518-520. Although the historic disparagement of and discrimination against gay individuals and gay couples clearly is no longer constitutionally permissible, the state continues to have a strong and adequate justification for refusing to officially sanction polygamous or incestuous relationships because of their potentially detrimental effect on a sound family environment. (Accord, e.g., Potter v. Murray City (C.D. Utah 1984) 585 F.Supp. 1126, 1137-1140, affd. (10th Cir. 1985) 760 F.2d 1065, 1068-1071, cert. den. (1985) 474 U.S. 849; People v. Scott, supra, 157 Cal.App.4th 189, 193-194.) Thus, our conclusion that it is improper to interpret the state constitutional right to marry as inapplicable to gay individuals or couples does not affect the constitutional validity of the existing legal prohibitions against polygamy and the marriage of close relatives."



To: Nadine Carroll who wrote (250357)5/17/2008 4:10:30 PM
From: DMaA  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 793896
 
The only argument for gay marriage is - we want it. You would think someone proposing redefining the parameters of a cornerstone institution of our civilization would be required to have a little more compelling reason than that.



To: Nadine Carroll who wrote (250357)5/18/2008 12:44:19 AM
From: Elroy  Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 793896
 
Civil unions don't redefine marriage. Gay marriage does.

From a purely legal perspective is a married couple entitled to anything denied a civilly unionized couple?