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To: grusum who wrote (13699)3/28/2009 7:07:37 PM
From: GraceZRead Replies (1) | Respond to of 24758
 
g: you are attempting to make the consequential seem like the intentional.


Intention has nothing to do with the causal, you can't judge the consequence by measuring intentions. You are trying to define harm as that which is intentional harm. Most harm done in this world is unintentional. Usually the courts define the level of an offense by degrees of intention but they most certainly don't absolve all harm done to another by someone unintentionally. I didn't mean to kill you when I ran that red light but kill you I did. It's not first degree murder but it might be ruled manslaughter.

I don't think you can define greed using this intentional "harm" to another yard stick. More often than not people are harmed by people attempting to do good! Do we absolve them of the harm they do because they were just trying to help, they had good intentions?

My sister-in-law helped my niece buy a house that was far too expensive for her alone and consequently my niece has to file for bankruptcy and will most likely lose her house. Congress tried to make it easier for poor people to afford houses by lowering the lending standards and now all those people are losing their houses to foreclosure. All kinds of evil comes about from the best of intentions.

On the other hand, if the lenders had been more greedy and demanded what the transactions were actually worth from a realistic risk perspective neither my niece nor these low income people would be losing their houses right now. They would have remained renters and would now be looking forward to better prices.