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Politics : Politics for Pros- moderated -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?

To: LindyBill who wrote (357552)	4/4/2010 12:05:48 PM
From: unclewest	9 Recommendations Read Replies (2) \| Respond to of 793903

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To: LindyBill who wrote (357552)	4/4/2010 12:16:12 PM
From: Elroy	2 Recommendations Read Replies (4) \| Respond to of 793903

The genius of the Declaration of Independence was the concept that "Rights" belong to the individual and he grants the use of force to his Government to maintain them. So how did women in the US get the right to vote? Logic from the above sentence would seem to argue that women always had the right to vote (but were denied it for years by oppressive men??) and the US government finally granted the use of force to the US government to maintain a woman's right to vote in the early 1900s? That sounds a bit odd and round about. I'd say the US government granted women the right to vote when they passed whatever amendment it was that gave them that legal right. Before that was passed, women did not have the right to vote in the US. Who passed the amendment which gave women the right to vote - the goverment. The genius of the Declaration of Independence was the concept that "Rights" belong to the individual and he grants the use of force to his Government to maintain them. Even the Declaration of Independence is a creation of the US government at the time, no?