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Pastimes : "I STILL own the ban button, buddy" -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?

To: Solon who wrote (1076)	12/17/2012 3:08:08 AM
From: Greg or e	Read Replies (1) \| Respond to of 2133

Pederasty: "A man who has sexual relations, especially anal intercourse, with a boy." "I also wondered why you are oddly trying to limit the universal pederasty in Greece to anal sex..." This definition doesn't limit Pederasty to anal sex with Boys but it is certainly a major aspect of it. "It probably simply reflects your personal experience." And that from the guy who cries about personal attacks. Of course it is your repeated use of gay slurs and innuendos like this which raises the question of why you were so fixated on sex with boys and why you chose to name yourself after a Homosexual Pedophile in the first place. Now consider the moral aspects. <1: Men having homosexual relationships with children is immoral"> "Fact. Usually, there is an age of consent which is used to legally regulate the morality of the relationship of pederasty. This is true everywhere. If the pederasty is legal and consensual then it is moral. ... The Greeks allowed the consent to flow through the guardianship of the parent." First: consent is irrelevant to the immorality of an adult using a child as an object to satisfy his sexual lusts. Second: The parents were bribed and the child basically was manipulated into prostituting himself exchanging sex with the adult for whatever personal gain might be offered to him and his family. Premise 1: stands. "2 You claim that all Greek Men were involved in homosexual relationships with children." "Fact. I claimed that all (or mostly all) Greek men were involved in pederasty both as adolescents in the role of eromenos and as mature men in the role of erastes. Homosexuality was not an idea in Greek culture." Of course Homosexuality was recognized by the Greeks. You're grasping at straws because they didn't use that specific word. All the scholarly resources say explicitly that any sexual relationship between male equals would have been scandalous. It's only because boys were seen as inferior and not yet men that they were legitimate targets of sexual exploitation. Premise 2: likewise stands. Premise 1 and 2 being valid, the conclusion follows.