SI
SI
discoversearch

We've detected that you're using an ad content blocking browser plug-in or feature. Ads provide a critical source of revenue to the continued operation of Silicon Investor.  We ask that you disable ad blocking while on Silicon Investor in the best interests of our community.  If you are not using an ad blocker but are still receiving this message, make sure your browser's tracking protection is set to the 'standard' level.
Pastimes : Ask God -- Ignore unavailable to you. Want to Upgrade?


To: IN_GOD_I_TRUST who wrote (18677)7/1/1998 9:59:00 AM
From: Raymond James Norris  Read Replies (2) | Respond to of 39621
 
You must believe this, because Jesus said it! You are supposed to believe in God and Jesus as you said above!

We've already addressed this verse. He was speaking to the Jews (Remember, Jesus (Pbuh) on many occasions said that he was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel. How do you explain that?)

But right now we're discussing whether Jesus (Pbuh) made an explicit statement from the Bible that he was God. "I am the way, the truth, and the life; no one cometh unto the Father but through me" does not in any way prove Jesus was saying he was equal to God - by any stretch of the imagination.

Jesus (Pbuh) said no one comes to God but through him (again, as I explained earlier, he was speaking to the Jews). How does that imply being equal to God?

John 1:1
1: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.


These aren't Jesus' (Pbuh) words. We're looking only at Jesus' words.

Does a messenger of God qualify having the characteristics of being around before the world was?

According to the Bible, Jeremiah was as well.

If Jesus were around before the world was, does that mean he's God? What proof do you have that being created before the earth implies equality with God? Again, if that characteristic holds to Jesus (Pbuh), it must hold to Jeremiah. Do you worship Jeremiah as well as Jesus (Pbuh)?

If you do, you must believe he is the only way to God!

Please read and explain this verse:

"But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel"
Matthew 15:24

Why would Jesus (Pbuh) say he was only sent to the lost house of Israel? Reading this verse alongside John 14:6 explains what he meant. All prophets said that they were the way for their people to God. For the Jews, it was Jesus.

Jesus (Pbuh) didn't say, "I am sent to all mankind" or "I am sent to the gentiles." Look at what he tells his own disciples:

"Go not into the way of the Gentiles (non-Jews), and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. And as ye go, preach, saying, The kingdom of heaven is at hand"
Matthew 10:5-7

Or saying that:

"But he (Jesus) answered and said, It is not meet to take the children's (Jews) bread, and to cast [it] to dogs (Gentiles)."
Matthew 15:26

Jeremiah 8:8 talks about the "lying pen of the scribes." He explains that the scribes are writing things that are not true. Sound familiar?

May the Peace and Blessings of God, Most Gracious, Most Merciful, Be upon you.

Ray